I need someone to help me review the attached 3 works submitted and comments about each one of them individually. About 100 words for each. No references, just your thoughts on what the students wrote. Please find attached documents.
Assume you are a nurse manager on a unit where a new nursing documentation system is to be implemented. You want to ensure that the system will be usable and acceptable for the nurses impacted. You realize a nurse leader must be on the implementation team.
To Prepare:
The Assignment: (2-3 pages)
In preparation of filling this role, develop a 2- to 3-page role description for a graduate-level nurse to guide his/her participation on the implementation team. The role description should be based on the SDLC stages and tasks and should clearly define how this individual will participate in and impact each of the following steps:
Part 1
Competency
Formulate, express, and support individual perspectives on diverse works and issues.
For this assessment task, you are asked to act as a critic for one of the various subjects under the umbrella of the subject Humanities. Through a series of critiques, you will be demonstrating your background knowledge on these subjects and the themes studied in the Humanities. In general, a critic evaluates a work or piece based on a common language of a subject. For example, certain terminology is used in the film industry for aesthetic, whereas other terminology is used in architecture. Aside from a common language of art, each subject usually includes a history of influence-how a work was influenced by other works and how a work influence aspects of today’s art and culture. Critics use this common body of history and aesthetic to offer critiques, or judgements on the validity of the importance of aesthetic (it’s representation of beauty).
Please watch the video below (02:33 – 16:32) as a refresher on this deliverable’s content. The video will not tell you everything you need to know to pass this test-out, but it should serve as a refresher.
https://rasmussen-kanopystreaming-
com.ezproxy.rasmussen.edu/video/humanities-approach-living-modern-world
part 2
Deliverable 03 – Humanities (Test-Out Sophia Replacement)
Competency
Formulate, express, and support individual perspectives on diverse works and issues.
Instructions
You will act as a critic for some of the main subjects covered in the humanities. You will conduct a series of short, evaluative critiques of film, philosophy, literature, music, and myth. You will respond to five different prompts, and each response should include an analysis of the topics using terminology unique to that subject area and should include an evaluation as to why the topic stands the test of time. The five prompts are as follows:
LOVE’S INCONSISTENCY
I find no peace, and all my war is done;
I fear and hope, I burn and freeze likewise
I fly above the wind, yet cannot rise;
And nought I have, yet all the world I seize on;
That looseth, nor locketh, holdeth me in prison, And holds me not, yet can I ’scape no wise;
Nor lets me live, nor die, at my devise,
And yet of death it giveth none occasion.
Without eyes I see, and without tongue I plain;
I wish to perish, yet I ask for health;
I love another, and yet I hate myself;
I feed in sorrow, and laugh in all my pain;
Lo, thus displeaseth me both death and life,
And my delight is causer of my grief.
Petrarch
After great pain a formal feeling comes—
The nerves sit ceremonious like tombs;
The stiff Heart questions—was it He that bore?
And yesterday—or centuries before?
The feet mechanical go round
A wooden way
Of ground or air or ought
Regardless grown,
A quartz contentment like a stone.
This is the hour of lead
Remembered if outlived
As freezing persons recollect
The snow—
First chill, then stupor, then
The letting go
Emily Dickinson.
4. Compare and contrast these two pieces of music:
Beethoven’s Violin Romance No. 2
Scott Joplin’s Maple Leaf Rag
5. Explain in classical terms why a modern character is a hero. Choose from either Luke Skywalker, Indiana Jones, Bilbo Baggins, Harry Potter, Katniss Everdeen, or Ender Wiggins.
Question 20
A patient recovering from shingles presents with tenderness and sensitivity to the upper back. He states it is bothersome to put a shirt on most days. This patient has end stage renal disease (ESRD) and is scheduled to have hemodialysis tomorrow but states that he does not know how he can lie in a recliner for 3 hours feeling this uncomfortable. What will be the PMHNP’s priority?
a) order herpes simplex virus (HSV) antibody testing
b) Order a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine STAT
c) Prescribe lidocaine 5%
d) Prescribe hydromorphone (dilaudid) 2mg
Question 21
The PMHNP prescribed a patient lamotrigine (Lamictal), 25 mg by mouth daily, for nerve pain 6 months ago. The patient suddenly presents to the office with the complaint that the medication is no longer working and complains of increased pain. What action will the PMHNP most likely take?
a) Increase the dose of lamotrigine (Lamictal) to 25mg twice daily
b) Ask if the pt has been taking the medication as prescribed
c) Order gabapentin, 100mg TID because lamotrigine is no longer working for this patient
d) Order a CBC to assess for an infection
Question 22
An elderly woman with a hx of alzheimer’s disease, coronary artery disease, and myocardial infarction had a fall at home 3 months ago that resulted in her receiving an open reduction internal fixation. While assessing this patient, the pmhnp is made aware that the patient continues to experience mild to moderate pain. What is the pmhnp most likely to do?
a) order an X-ray because it is possible that she dislocated her hip
b) order ibuprofen because she mayneed long term treatment and chronic pain is not uncommon
c) Order naproxen because she may havarthritis and chronic pain is not uncommon
d) Order morphine and physical therapy
Question 23
The PMHNP is assessing a 49-year-old male with a history of depression, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), alcoholism with malnutrition, diabetes mellitus type 2, and hypertension. His physical assessment is unremarkable with the exception of peripheral edema bilaterally to his lower extremities and a chief complaint of pain with numbness and tingling to each leg 5/10. The PMHNP starts this patient on a low dose of doxepin (Sinequan). What is the next action that must be taken by the PMHNP?
a) Orders liver function tests
b) Educate the patient on avoiding grapefruits when taking this medication
c) Encourage this patient to keep fluids to 1500ml/day until the swelling subside
d) Order BUN/Creatinine test
Question 24
The PMHNP is evaluating a 30-year-old female patient who states that she notices pain and a drastic change in mood before the start of her menstrual cycle. The patient states that she has tried diet and lifestyle changes but nothing has worked. What will the PMHNP most likely do?
a) Prescribe estrin FE 24 birth control
b) Prescribe Ibuprofen 800mg every 8 hours as needed for pain
c) Prescribe desvenlafaxine (Pristiq) 50mg daily
d) Prescribe Risperdal 2mg TID
Question 25
A patient with chronic back pain has been prescribed a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). How does the PMHNP describe the action of SNRIs on the inhibition of pain to the patient?
a) “the SNRI can increase noradrenergic neurotransmission in the descending spinal pathway to the dorsal horn”
b) “the SNRI can decrease noradrenergic neurotransmission in the descending spinal pathway to the dorsal horn”
c) “the SNRI can reduce brain atrophy by slowing the gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex”
d) “the SNRI can increase neurotransmission to descending neurons”
Question 26
A patient with fibromyalgia and major depression needs to be treated for symptoms of pain. Which is the PMHNP most likely to prescribe for this patient?
a) Venlafaxine (Effexor)
b) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
c) Clozapine (Clozaril)
d) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Question 27
The PMHNP prescribes gabapentin (Neurontin) for a patient’s chronic pain. How does the PMHNP anticipate the drug to work?
a) It will bind to the alpha-2-delta ligand subunit of voltage-sensitive calcium channels
b) It will induce synaptic changes, including sprouting
c) It will act on the presynaptic neuron to trigger sodium influx
d) It will Inhibit activity of dorsal horn neurons to suppress body input from reaching the brain
Question 28
Mrs. Rosen is a 49-year-old patient who is experiencing fibro-fog. What does the PMHNP prescribe for Mrs. Rosen to improve this condition?
a) Venlafaxine (Effexor)
b) Armodafinil (Nuvigil)
c) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
d) All of the above
Question 29
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with fibromyalgia. Which second-line treatment does the PMHNP select that may be effective for managing this patient’s pain?
a) Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
b) Viloxazine (Vivalan)
c) Imipramine (Tofranil)
d) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
Question 30
The PMHNP is attempting to treat a patient’s chronic pain by having the agent bind the open channel conformation of VSCCs to block those channels with a “use-dependent” form of inhibition. Which agent will the PMHNP most likely select?
a) Pregabalin (Lyrica)
b) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
c) Modafinil (Provigil)
d) Atomoxetine (Strattera)
Question 31
A patient with irritable bowel syndrome reports chronic stomach pain. The PMHNP wants to prescribe the patient an agent that will cause irrelevant nociceptive inputs from the pain to be ignored and no longer perceived as painful. Which drug will the PMHNP prescribe?
a) Pregabalin (Lyrica)
b) Gabapentin (Neurontin)
c) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
d) B and C
Question 32
The PMHNP wants to use a symptom-based approach to treating a patient with fibromyalgia. How does the PMHNP go about treating this patient?
a) Prescribing the patient an agent that ignores the painful symptoms by initiating a reaction known as “fibro-fog”
b) Targeting the patient’s symptoms with anticonvulsants that inhibits gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
c) Mzatching the patient’s symptoms with the malfunctioning brain circuits and neurotransimitters that might mediate those symptoms
d) None of the above
Question 33
The PMHNP is working with the student to care for a patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathic pain. The student asks the PMHNP why SSRIs are not consistently useful in treating this particular patient’s pain. What is the best response by the PMHNP?
a) “SSRIs only increase norepinephrine levels”
b) “SSRIs only increase serotonin levels”
c) “SSRIs only increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels”
d) “SSRIs do not increase serotonin or norepinephrine levels”
Question 34
A patient with gambling disorder and no other psychiatric comorbidities is being treated with pharmacological agents. Which drug is the PMHNP most likely to prescribe?
a) Antipsychotics
b) Lithium
c) SSRI
d) Naltrexone
Question 35
Kevin is an adolescent who has been diagnosed with kleptomania. His parents are interested in seeking pharmacological treatment. What does the PMHNP tell the parents regarding his treatment options?
a) “Naltrexone may be an appropriate option to discuss”
b) “there are many medicine options that treat Kleptomania”
c) “Kevin may need to be prescribed antipsychotics to treat this illness”
d) “Lithium has proven effective for treating kleptomania”
Question 36
Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating patients for impulsive aggression?
a) Anticonvulsant mood stabilizers can eradicate limbic irritability
b) Atypical antipsychotics can increase subcortical dopaminergic stimulation
c) Stimulants can be used to decrease frontal inhibition
d) Opioid antagonists can be used to reduce drive
Question 37
A patient with hypersexual disorder is being assessed for possible pharmacologic treatment. Why does the PMHNP prescribe an antiandrogen for this patient?
a) It will prevent feelings of euphoria
b) It will amplify impulse control
c) It will block testosterone
d) It will redirect the patient to think about other things
Question 38
Mrs. Kenner is concerned that her teenage daughter spends too much time on the Internet. She inquires about possible treatments for her daughter’s addiction. Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of pharmacologic approaches for compulsive disorders?
a) “Compulsive internet use can be treated similarly to how we treat people with substance use disorders”
b) “internet addiction is treated with drugs that help block the tension/arousal state your daughter experiences”
c) “When it comes to internet addiction, we prefer to treat patients with pharmaceuticals rather than psychosocial methods”
d) “there are no evidence-based treatments for internet addiction, but there are behavioral therapies your daughter can try”
Question 39
Mr. Peterson is meeting with the PMHNP to discuss healthier dietary habits. With a BMI of 33, Mr. Peterson is obese and needs to modify his food intake. “Sometimes I think I’m addicted to food the way some people are addicted to drugs”, he says. Which statement best describes the neurobiological parallels between food and drug addiction?
a) There is decreased activation of the prefrontal cortex
b) There is increased sensation of the reactive reward system
c) There is reduced activation of regions that process palatability
d) There are amplified reward circuits that activate upon consumption
Question 40
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who reports excessive arousal at nighttime. What could the PMHNP use for a time-limited duration to shift the patient’s brain from a hyperactive state to a sleep state?
a) Histamine 2 receptor antagonist
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Stimulants
d) Caffeine
Question 41
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who experiences too much overstimulation and anxiety during daytime hours. The patient agrees to a pharmacological treatment but states, “I don’t want to feel sedated or drowsy from the medicine.” Which decision made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper knowledge of this patient’s symptoms and appropriate treatment options?
a) Avoiding prescribing the patient a drug that blocks H1 receptors
b) Prescribing the patient a drug that acts on H2 receptors
c) Stopping the patient from taking medicine that unblocks H1 receptors
d) None of the above
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5
Question 1: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 2: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
a. Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 3: Most adult poisonings are:
a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 4: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
a. “It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 6: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 7: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
a. Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 9: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
a. Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 10: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
Question 11: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
a. Overweight
b. Mild obesity
c. Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 12: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 13: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 14: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 15: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
a. Radical orchidectomy
b. Lumpectomy
c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 16: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 17: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 18: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
a. Spores
b. Leukocytes
c. Pseudohyphae
d. Epithelial cells
Question 19: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%
Question 20: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
a. Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 21: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
a. An enlarged rubbery gland
b. A hard irregular gland
c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 22: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 24: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
a. Sinus bradycardia
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 25: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 26: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 27: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 28: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test
b. Pelvic ultrasound
c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 29: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
a. Propranolol
c. Ergotamine
b. Timolol
d. Topiramate
Question 30: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
Healthcare organizations continually seek to optimize healthcare performance. For years, this approach was a three-pronged one known as the Triple Aim, with efforts focused on improved population health, enhanced patient experience, and lower healthcare costs.
More recently, this approach has evolved to a Quadruple Aim by including a focus on improving the work life of healthcare providers. Each of these measures are impacted by decisions made at the organizational level, and organizations have increasingly turned to EBP to inform and justify these decisions.
To Prepare:
To Complete:
Write a brief analysis (no longer than 2 pages) of the connection between EBP and the Quadruple Aim.
Your analysis should address how EBP might (or might not) help reach the Quadruple Aim, including each of the four measures of:
Rubrics:
· Patient experience
· Population health
· Costs
· Work life of healthcare providers–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 77 (77%) – 85 (85%) Good 68 (68%) – 76 (76%) Fair 60 (60%) – 67 (67%) Poor 0 (0%) – 59 (59%)
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Discussion: Legal and Ethical Conduct
As emphasized in this week’s media presentation, all nurses need to be familiar with the laws and regulations that govern their practice: their state’s Nurse Practice Act, ANA’s Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice, specialty group standards of practice, etc. In addition, basic ethical principles guide nurses’ decision-making process every day. ANA’s Code of Ethics and ANA’s Social Policy Statement are two important documents that outline nurses’ ethical responsibilities to their patients, themselves, and their profession. This said, there is a dilemma: The laws are not always compatible with the ethical positions nurses sometimes take. This week’s Discussion focuses on such a dilemma.
To prepare:
Review this week’s Learning Resources, focusing on the information in the media presentation about the relationship between the law and ethics.
Consider the ethical responsibility of nurses in ensuring patient autonomy, beneficence, non-malfeasance, and justice.
Read the following scenario:
Lena is a community health care nurse who works exclusively with HIV-positive and AIDS patients. As a part of her job, she evaluates new cases and reviews confidential information about these patients. In the course of one of these reviews, Lena learns that her sister’s boyfriend has tested HIV positive. Lena would like to protect her sister from harm and begins to consider how her sister can find out about her boyfriend’s health status.
Consult at least two resources to help you establish Lena’s legal and ethical position. These resources might include your state’s Nurse Practice Act, the ANA’s Code of Ethics, ANA’s Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice, and internal or external standards of care.
Consider what action you would take if you were Lena and why.
Determine whether the law and the ANA’s standards support or conflict with that action.
Post a description of the actions you would take in this situation, and why. Justify these actions by referencing appropriate laws, ethical standards, and professional guidelines.
Required Readings
Milstead, J. A. (2019). Health policy and politics: A nurse’s guide (6th ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones and Bartlett Publishers.
Chapter 4, “Government Response: Regulation” (pp. 56-81)
This chapter explains the major concepts of the regulation of health professionals, with emphasis on advanced practice nurses (APN) and the process of licensure and credentialing.
ANA’s Foundation of Nursing Package – (Access this resource from the Walden Library databases through your NURS 6050 Course Readings List)
Guide to the Code of Ethics: Interpretation and Application
This guide details the history, purpose and theory, application, and case studies of this must-have Code of Ethics.
Nursing Social Policy Statement
The Nursing Social Policy Statement provides an understanding of the social framework and obligations of the nursing profession.
Nursing: Scope & Standards of Practice
This book contains several national standards of practice that can be used to inform the decision-making process, development, implementation, and evaluation of several functions and aspects of advanced practice nursing.
NOTE: CHECK THE DOCUMENTS, BOOK AND MEDIA PRESENTATION VIDEO ATTACHED BELLOW TO COMPLETE THE DISCUSSION QUESTION
Complete this week’s assigned readings, chapters from 39 to 43 of the textbook:
Mason, D. J., Leavitt, J.K., Chaffee, M.W. (2016). Policy and Politics: In Nursing and Health Care. (7th• Ed) St. Louis, Missouri: Elsevier, Saunders. ISBN-13: 9780323299886
1- After completing the readings, post a reflection, approximately 2 paragraph in length, discussing your thoughts and opinions about one or several of the specific topics covered in the textbook readings.
2- Identify which MSN Essential most relates to your selected topic in your discussion.
I have attached the textbook and the MSN Essentials
Hypothyroidism SOAP NOTE
Patient Initials: Age: Gender:
SUBJECTIVE DATA:
Chief Complaint (CC): “ ”.
History of Present Illness (HPI):
Medications:
Allergies:
Past Medical History (PMH):
Current medication:
Past Surgical History (PSH):
Family History:
Personal/Social History:
Immunization: up to date.
Lifestyle:
Review of Systems:
General:
HEENT:
Neck:
Breasts:
Respiratory:
Cardiovascular/Peripheral Vascular:
Gastrointestinal:
Genitourinary:
Musculoskeletal:
Psychiatric:
Neurological
Skin:
Hematologic:
Endocrine:
OBJECTIVE DATA:
Physical Exam:
Vital signs: Temperature: ; BP: mmHg; HR: bpm; RR: /min; Oxygen Saturation: %; Pain: (0-10 scale), Weight lb; Height; BMI
General:.
HEENT:
Neck:
Chest
Lungs:
Heart:
Peripheral Vascular:
Genital/Rectal:
Musculoskeletal:
Neurological:
Skin:
ASSESSMENT:
Differential Diagnosis
1. Hyperthyroidism.
2.
3.
From both the subjective and objective data, it is clear that the main diagnosis is
PLAN:
Treatment Plan: (please prescription with dose)
Non-pharmacological approaches
For the follow-up, the patient should get back to the hospital after
References: 2 or 3 with APA format
Soap Note 2 Chronic Conditions (15 Points)
Pick any Chronic Disease from Weeks 6-10
Follow the MRU Soap Note Rubric as a guide:
Use APA format and must include minimum of 2 Scholarly Citations.
Soap notes will be uploaded to Moodle and put through TURN-It-In (anti-Plagiarism program)
Turn it in Score must be less than 50% or will not be accepted for credit, must be your own work and in your own words. You can resubmit, Final submission will be accepted if less than 50%. Copy paste from websites or textbooks will not be accepted or tolerated. Please see College Handbook with reference to Academic Misconduct Statement.
Please use the sample templates for you soap note, keep these templates for when you start clinicals.
The use of templates is ok with regards of Turn it in, but the Patient History, CC, HPI, The Assessment and Plan should be of your own work and individualized to your made up patient.
This is an individual assignment. In 1,500-2,000 words, describe the teaching experience and discuss your observations. The written portion of this assignment should include:
Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.
1
Unsatisfactory
0.00%
2
Less than Satisfactory
75.00%
3
Satisfactory
83.00%
4
Good
94.00%
5
Excellent
100.00%
80.0 %Content
30.0 %Comprehensive Summary of Teaching Plan With Epidemiological Rationale for Topic
Summary of community teaching plan is not identified or missing.
Summary of community teaching plan is incomplete.
Summary of community teaching plan is offered but some elements are vague.
Focus of community teaching is clear with a detailed summary of each component. Rationale is not provided.
Focus of community teaching is clear, consistent with Functional Health Patterns (FHP) assessment findings and supported by explanation of epidemiological rationale.
50.0 %Evaluation of Teaching Experience With Discussion of Community Response to Teaching Provided. Areas of Strength and Areas of Improvement Described
Evaluation of teaching experience is omitted or incomplete.
Evaluation of teaching experience is unclear and/or discussion of community response to teaching is missing.
Evaluation of teaching experience is provided with a brief discussion of community response to teaching.
A detailed evaluation of teaching experience with discussion of community response to teaching and areas of strength/improvement is provided.
Comprehensive evaluation of teaching experience with discussion of community response provided along with a detailed description of barriers and strategies to overcome barriers is provided.
15.0 %Organization and Effectiveness
5.0 %Thesis Development and Purpose
Paper lacks any discernible overall purpose or organizing claim.
Thesis is insufficiently developed and/or vague; purpose is not clear.
Thesis is apparent and appropriate to purpose.
Thesis is clear and forecasts the development of the paper. It is descriptive and reflective of the arguments and appropriate to the purpose.
Thesis is comprehensive; contained within the thesis is the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear.
5.0 %Paragraph Development and Transitions
Paragraphs and transitions consistently lack unity and coherence. No apparent connections between paragraphs are established. Transitions are inappropriate to purpose and scope. Organization is disjointed.
Some paragraphs and transitions may lack logical progression of ideas, unity, coherence, and/or cohesiveness. Some degree of organization is evident.
Paragraphs are generally competent, but ideas may show some inconsistency in organization and/or in their relationships to each other.
A logical progression of ideas between paragraphs is apparent. Paragraphs exhibit a unity, coherence, and cohesiveness. Topic sentences and concluding remarks are appropriate to purpose.
There is a sophisticated construction of paragraphs and transitions. Ideas progress and relate to each other. Paragraph and transition construction guide the reader. Paragraph structure is seamless.
5.0 %Mechanics of Writing (includes spelling, punctuation, grammar, language use)
Surface errors are pervasive enough that they impede communication of meaning. Inappropriate word choice and/or sentence construction are used.
Frequent and repetitive mechanical errors distract the reader. Inconsistencies in language choice (register), sentence structure, and/or word choice are present.
Some mechanical errors or typos are present, but are not overly distracting to the reader. Correct sentence structure and audience-appropriate language are used.
Prose is largely free of mechanical errors, although a few may be present. A variety of sentence structures and effective figures of speech are used.
Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English.
5.0 %Format
2.0 %Paper Format
Template is not used appropriately or documentation format is rarely followed correctly.
Template is used, but some elements are missing or mistaken; lack of control with formatting is apparent.
Template is used, and formatting is correct, although some minor errors may be present.
Template is fully used; There are virtually no errors in formatting style.
All format elements are correct.
3.0 %Research Citations (In-text citations for paraphrasing and direct quotes, and reference page listing and formatting, as appropriate to assignment)
No reference page is included. No citations are used.
Reference page is present. Citations are inconsistently used.
Reference page is included and lists sources used in the paper. Sources are appropriately documented, although some errors may be present.
Reference page is present and fully inclusive of all cited sources. Documentation is appropriate and style guide is usually correct.
In-text citations and a reference page are complete. The documentation of cited sources is free of error.
100 %Total Weightag
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